What Son Of God means as per bible.

What Son Of God means as per Bible.

       Son of God is a metaphorical term used in bible to denote righteous person. This term is used again and again for all Prophets. Abraham is son of God, Noah is son of God, David is son of God(Peace be upon all of them) etc

It is mentioned-
"…Adam, which was the son of God." Luke 3:38

"That the sons of God saw the daughters of men, that they were fair…." Genesis 6:2

"…Israel is my son, even my firstborn". Exodus 4:22

"…For I (God) am a Father to Israel, and E’-phra-im is my firstborn." Jeremiah 31:9

"…the LORD hath said unto me, ‘Thou art my son(David as); this day have I begotten thee.’" Psalms2:7

Bible has got son by Tons, in the book of Romans it is clearly mentioned that
Romans  {8:14} For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.

It clearly states that son of God means righteous person, as per this if you are a God fearing person then you are a son of God.

So “Son of God” is a metaphorical term used in bible for righteous person.        

But some will claim that Jesus (pbuh) is a begotten son of God (God Forbids) presenting this verse.

John {3:16} For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.(KJV)

But they fail to realize that this word has been thrown out from bible as an alteration.

Now Revised Standards Version of Bible clearly states that

John 3:16  For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.

The word begotten is not there...It is thrown out as a FABRICATION in Bible.

But some will still argue no no…I believe its (John 3:16) begotten.

For them….its ok .. the verse says Only begotten son, means God has only one. Now look at Bible

Psalms {2:7} I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou [art] my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

As per this David is the begotten son…..and John 3:16 says God has only one without mentioning Jesus(pbuh)!!

Now Who should be your lord and savior???

Cause it should be David (pbuh) as per John 3:16.

We can clearly see that this term is used metaphorically...... This problem occurs due to the translation ... English translation is not the original one..its the Translation of a translation (Greek --> Latin --> -->English) without the originals (Aramaic).

The language of Jesus (pbuh) was Aramaic' he never spoke English. Translators translated the work ( from the language which is rich n full of metaphors ans similes) into the language (English) which is not as rich ..n taken so many metaphors literally.......That's the cause of most of the problem.

PS-
Its important to note that in bible Jesus (pbuh) has been mentioned as ‘Son Of Man” more than 80 times



    ------Regards-------
Mohammed Tariq Ansari